2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: 250-421
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Design of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.using supported server platforms
B.using agents for databases
C.using mirror snapshots for backups
D.using a private backup network
ANSWER: BCD

Symantec   250-421   certification 250-421

NO.2 Which two items are gathered during the data collection for a Data Protection design? (Choose two.)
A.backup client platforms and operating system versions
B.amount of Data to be backed up
C.Sales Engineers preference of tape library vendors
D.existence of network intrusion detection servers
ANSWER: AB

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NO.3 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already analyzed preferences
and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (Choose two.)
A.information in the SLA
B.network infrastructure
C.number of employees
D.number of tapes purchased
ANSWER: AB

certification Symantec   250-421   250-421   250-421   250-421   certification 250-421

NO.4 You are designing a NetBackup environment. You will be using an external (non-NetBackup)
scheduling product to initiate the jobs from the Master Server.
Which three NetBackup features will be available in this configuration? (Choose three.)
A.cumulative incremental backup
B.automatic retry of failed jobs
C.multistreaming
D.multiplexing
ANSWER: ACD

certification Symantec   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.5 Which three items are considered in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.company hardware standards
B.the type of cabling used for networks and SAN
C.data throughput speeds over networks and SAN
D.business requirements for recovery point and time
ANSWER: ACD

certification Symantec   250-421   250-421   250-421   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.6 Your current NetBackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes. Each tape is
capable of holding 40 GB of data. You are putting in a new library with modern drives which supports
tapes capable of holding 300 GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity of your old library to
meet future growth.
What is the minimum number of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A.80
B.110
C.140
D.170
ANSWER: C

certification Symantec   250-421 examen   certification 250-421   250-421

NO.7 Human Resources has three servers being backed up in a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a
requirement to be able to perform full server restores from any particular day going back three weeks.
Given the following environment standards:
Full backups are performed every other Friday.
Cumulative incremental backups are performed on all other days.
What are the minimum retention levels you should configure?
A.Full: two weeks Incremental: three weeks
B.Full: three weeks Incremental: one week
C.Full: four weeks Incremental: three weeks
D.Full: two months Incremental: three weeks
ANSWER: C

Symantec   250-421   certification 250-421   certification 250-421   250-421

NO.8 A database must be able to recover from a logical data error in which invalid application data has been
entered and saved.
Which data protection technique is most likely to help in this situation?
A.database server clustering
B.a backup of the database and daily logs
C.disk array based real-time replication
D.active storage mirroring
ANSWER: B

Symantec   certification 250-421   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.9 The current NetBackup environment has grown to the point where catalog backups can no longer fit
on one tape.
Which two methods resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A.back up the catalog using multistaged backup
B.compress the catalog
C.stop backing up the catalog
D.compress the catalog with gzip
ANSWER: AB

Symantec   250-421 examen   certification 250-421

NO.10 You currently administer a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a single master/media server backing up
57 network clients through 1-gigabit Ethernet. A tape library is attached to this system through a Fibre
Channel SAN.
Backups jobs are currently completing within your backup window, though there is little time to spare.
After performing an analysis, you determine that you are maximizing your Ethernet usage, but your tape
drives are only running at about half their rated capacity. Backups are performed at night on the public
Ethernet when usage is virtually nonexistent.
You are told that two new systems are being added to your environment with 4 TB of data each. These
systems must be backed up within the same backup window.
What are three ways to help accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A.set up another committed media server and share the tape drives through SSO on the SAN
B.add a second gigabit card to the master/media server for the new servers to back up across
C.make the two new large systems SAN media servers and share the tape drives through SSO on the
SAN
D.create a 1-gigabit private network for all clients to back up across and stop using the public network
altogether
ANSWER: ABC

certification Symantec   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.11 You are designing a data protection solution for a new datacenter.
Which two things can be done to improve the overall availability of the data protection environment?
(Choose two.)
A.add an additional local disk to each backup server
B.connect each system to separate power sources
C.mirror the boot disk of each backup server
D.connect a tape drive to each client in the datacenter
ANSWER: BC

Symantec   250-421 examen   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421 examen

NO.12 You want to evaluate an environment for a NetBackup 5.0 implementation. You are already aware of
which servers will be the master and media servers and which agents will be used.
What else do you determine in order to provide the proper installation requirements for NetBackup?
A.Is Name Resolution functioning properly?
B.Is every client present in the master server hosts file?
C.Is the root partition on the master server mirrored?
D.Is mySQL installed?
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   250-421   250-421

NO.13 Given three servers named ServerA, ServerB, and ServerC, each of which has file systems /, /opt,
and /data:
Using one policy how can all drives be backed on each server except the /data file system on ServerB?
A.All servers in a policy must share the same file list, so you must create a separate policy for ServerB.
B.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES with UNSET and //serverb/data below it in the policy file list
C.use /opt in the policy file list and put /data in the include_list file for all servers except ServerB
D.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES in the policy file list and put /data in the exclude_list file for ServerB
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   250-421 examen   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.14 NetBackup Vault is being used to duplicate backups in an environment where there are only two tape
drives.
How many additional tape drives are needed to keep a single tape drive failure from being a single point
of failure?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
ANSWER: A

Symantec   250-421   250-421   certification 250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.15 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup domain. You do
not use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL, Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this
client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A.There will be two reboots required: one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one reboot for
NetBackup installation.
B.There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
C.There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not require a separate reboot.
D.There will be a need for one reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
ANSWER: B

Symantec examen   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.16 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A.fast backups
B.off-host backups
C.referential backups
D.incremental backups
ANSWER: B

Symantec   certification 250-421   250-421 examen   250-421

NO.17 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five hundred clients.
Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the capacity of housing an additional
1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup environment? (Choose
three.)
A.the operating system version of clients
B.SAN infrastructure available
C.cooling capacity of new datacenter
D.network connectivity between the datacenters
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.18 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design, which three items
should be determined? (Choose three.)
A.media server backup performance
B.network and SAN data rates
C.capacity of tape media
D.client backup windows
ANSWER: ABD

certification Symantec   250-421 examen   250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.19 A current NetBackup environment takes the entire backup window to complete. Given the following
environment:
You do not use multiplexing.
There are eight clients each capable of producing 5 MB/s.
The network is capable of sustaining 60 MB/s.
The media server has three tape drives, each capable of sustaining 20 MB/s.
How do you continue to meet the backup window while adding six more similarly configured clients?
A.increase the multitape option
B.increase the network bandwidth
C.increase the number of backup schedules
D.increase the number of tape drives
ANSWER: D

Symantec   250-421   250-421   250-421

NO.20 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to store 1-GB
product data files for the marketing department. The marketing department already has 5,000 product
data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add about 500 product files per week for the
next 30 weeks. After files are added they are never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday, and the backup must
be performed between 12:01 a.m. Saturday and Noon Sunday (a 36-hour window).
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A.teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B.single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C.100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D.10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-307
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Enterprise Vault 2007 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 172 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit. Phil, Sabina, and Anthony all work for the same company. The Symantec
Enterprise Vault Provisioning Groups and their members are as follows: Phil is part of the Sales
Organizational Unit. Sabina is part of the Marketing Organizational Unit. Anthony is part of the
Marketing Organizational Unit and also a manager of the marketing team. The Sales Group
consists of all members of the Sales Organizational Unit. The Marketing Group consists of all
members of the Marketing Organizational Unit. The Department Heads Group consists of all
managers. Assuming the Provisioning Groups are set up as shown in the exhibit, which statement
accurately describes the users and their resulting mailbox policies?
A.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, and both Sabina and Anthony will be part of the Marketing Group.
B.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of the Department Heads Group.
C.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of both the Marketing and the Department Heads Group.
D.Anthony will be part of the Department Heads Group, and both Sabina and Phil will be part of the
Marketing Group.
Correct:A

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.2 A large organization wants to replace mail messages with shortcuts after archiving. However,
they want to configure shortcuts to retain only a portion of the original message. Which setting
will allow only a portion of each mail message to be used in the shortcut?
A.Display attachments as
B.Include message body
C.Message characters to include
D.Include link to archived item
Correct:C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.3 Which two can interfere with the normal operation of indexing? (Choose two.)
A.real-time antivirus scanning of index locations
B.index locations on SAN storage
C.SchemaType that is set incorrectly
D./3GB switch in boot.ini
E.index location on network share
Correct:A D

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.4 What is the default indexing level for a Symantec Enterprise Vault site?
A.None
B.Brief
C.Medium
D.Full
Correct:C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.5 Which feature of Offline Vault is designed to reduce synchronization times?
A.auto downloading
B.age-based archiving
C.pre-emptive caching
D.multi-threaded caching
Correct:C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.6 Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) has been configured to run Journaling and Mailbox Archiving to
separate Vault Stores with Vault Store partitions that are configured on NTFS. Mailbox Archiving is
set to archive large items after one month and all items older than three months. Which items are
single instance stored between the Journal and Mailbox archives?
A.Zero items are single instance stored.
B.Large items, older than one month are single instance stored.
C.Items older than three months are single instance stored.
D.All items are single instance stored.
Correct:A

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.7 How often does the Symantec Enterprise Vault Journal Archiving Task process the journal
mailbox?
A.every 30 seconds
B.every 60 seconds
C.every two minutes
D.every five minutes
Correct:B

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.8 Which two Web-based clients support the Symantec Enterprise Vault toolbar buttons, such as
Store in Vault and Delete from Vault? (Choose two.)
A.Safari
B.Outlook Web Access Basic
C.Outlook Web Access Premium
D.Firefox
E.Offline Archive Explorer
Correct:B C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.9 Exchange mailboxes that are enabled for archiving are examined regularly and messages older
than a specified age are moved. Where are the messages moved to?
A.offsite partition
B.archive library
C.user-specific archive
D.collection site
Correct:C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.10 What should be done when troubleshooting a mailbox synchronization problem? (Choose three.)
A.verify that the Task Controller Service is running
B.ensure that the Mailbox Archiving Task for Exchange Server is running
C.run EVverify.exe
D.check the relevant message queue
E.verify that the Indexing Service is running
Correct:A B D

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.11 An organization has a requirement to archive email from Exchange. They want to provide users
the basic ability to search archived mail and attachment content, but with minimal space used for
this feature. Which statement describes how this would be accomplished?
A.Indexing levels should be set to Medium.
B.A Vault Store must be configured with Medium indexing.
C.All attachments are fully indexed regardless of index level.
D.The indexing schema must be changed from its default value.
Correct:A

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.12 In addition to index locations, which Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) folders should be
excluded from Anti-Virus scanning on all EV servers? (Choose three.)
A.MSMQ storage location
B.C:\program files\Enterprise Vault\MOM
C.TEMP folders
D.Shopping folder
E.Convertors folder
Correct:A C D

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.13 When processing a scheduled archiving run, all processes appear to be functioning correctly
and no errors are logged. However no items are archived during the scheduled time frame. What
needs to be checked when troubleshooting this problem?
A.confirm the site schedule period is outside of normal business hours
B.confirm the archiving task "Run in report mode" option is deselected
C.confirm the archiving task is set to start automatically
D.confirm that the task settings enforces at least one item to be archived per run
Correct:B

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.14 Which three types of Outlook Web Access (OWA) security configurations does Enterprise Vault
support? (Choose three.)
A.basic authentication
B.SSL
C.forms based authentication
D.premium mode
E.DCOM
Correct:A B C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.15 Which two conditions must be met before a mailbox can be enabled? (Choose two.)
A.The mailbox must be placed in a Provisioning Group.
B.The Indexing Service must be running.
C.The Provisioning Task must have run.
D.The mailbox management process must be running.
E.The Mailbox Archiving Task must be restarted.
Correct:A C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.16 When creating a Directory database, where should the data and log locations be stored?
A.on the same disk as the Audit database
B.on the same disk as the Vault Store database
C.on the indexing server
D.on separate physical disks
Correct:D

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.17 Which two methods can be used to view the policy settings contained within the hidden
messages? (Choose two.)
A.access Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and go to Vault Information
B.locate the latest Exchange Provisioning Task Report under the Enterprise Vault Reports directory and
verify the latest policy settings that are being applied to
C.users
D.using the Enterprise Vault full client, right-click on the Inbox, go to Properties, Enterprise Vault tab, and
view the hidden message
E.Access the Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and view the client log
F.run a DTrace during the synchronization process with a filter on "Hidden Message" to view all settings
being set within the user's hidden message
Correct:A D

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.18 According to Enterprise Vault indexing best practices, one of two configuration steps should
be performed when index volumes are stored on a remote windows share.What are these two
configuration steps? (Choose two.)
A.disable Opportunistic locks from being granted through the remote server's registry
B.disable Opportunistic locks from being requested through the vault server's registry
C.disable Opportunistic locking on the vault server through ADSI edit
D.enable Opportunistic locks to be requested through the remote server's registry
E.enable Opportunistic locks to be granted through the vault server's registry
Correct:A B

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.19 A Symantec Enterprise Vault monitoring report indicates that messages are no longer cleared
from the journal mailbox. What are three possible causes for this? (Choose three.)
A.Exchange Mailbox Archiving Task has shut down.
B.Exchange Journaling Task has shut down.
C.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Server object in the Vault Administration
Console.
D.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Journal mailbox.
E.An administrator has modified permissions to the journal archive.
Correct:B D E

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

NO.20 Within Provisioning Groups, what defines how archiving is performed for the groups defined?
A.status of the vault partition
B.size of the Exchange Server
C.the Mailbox Policy
D.the Provisioning Task
Correct:C

Symantec   250-307   250-307   250-307 examen

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Code d'Examen: 250-308
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 265 Q&As

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NO.1 Enterprise Vault can single instance savesets between which two storage locations? (Select two.)
A. Vault Stores
B. Vault Store Groups
C. Collection Files (.cab)
D. Managed Folders
E. Index Locations
Answer: AC

Symantec   250-308 examen   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.2 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
Based on the information included in the Archive Properties window shown in the exhibit, why should an
administrator use the Rebuild Index Volume function?
A. A user's permissions to this archive were recently changed and the administrator wants to update the
index entries with these new permissions.
B. The index volume has failed, which prevents accessing the archived items.
C. A user that had previously delegated access to this archive no longer has this access and the index
must be updated to reflect this change.
D. The archive's indexing level has been changed from Brief to Medium and the user wants to take
advantage of searching all archived items' contents.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator needs statistics about how frequently items are accessed. EV
Reporting has been installed and configured correctly. However, when selecting the Archived Items
Access report, it displays "There is no data available to display."
What is the cause for this message to display?
A. EV Auditing is not enabled.
B. EV Operations Manager is not configured.
C. EV Reports Configuration has not run.
D. The EV Fingerprint Database is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is a benefit of deploying Enterprise Vault?
A. It provides an alternative backup database.
B. It provides a way to help address corporate risk.
C. It provides a way to help address access control.
D. It provides an additional Exchange mail relay.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D

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NO.7 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE

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NO.8 Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?
A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server
B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server
C. the Exchange System mailbox
D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.9 The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.11 What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?
A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.
B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.
C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.
D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users' Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C

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NO.13 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.14 After an email is archived for 90 days, a company decides to remove shortcuts from users' mailboxes.
Archived email is retained for five years within the archive.
Which three methods provide access to archived email when the shortcut is removed? (Select three.)
A. Search Vaults
B. Outlook search
C. Google desktop
D. Browser search
E. Archive Explorer
Answer: ADE

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NO.15 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.16 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.17 Enterprise Vault can archive eligible items in mailboxes based on which attributes?
A. mailbox size and state
B. item age and importance level
C. item age and mailbox size
D. mailbox state and utilization
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Refer to the Exhibit.
An organization is using safety copies on their Mailbox Archiving Vault Stores in Enterprise Vault (EV).
Users are prevented from manually archiving or restoring archived items. The organization wants to
minimize the time that users see pending shortcuts in their mailboxes using Outlook.
In what order should the administrator run backups and archiving?
A. back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving, back up EV
B. back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving, back up Exchange
C. back up Exchange, back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving
D. back up EV, back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving
Answer: A

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NO.20 An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line "AllowDelete=1" to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck "Prevent deletion of archived items in this category" from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check "Users can delete items from their Archives" in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE

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NO.21 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC

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NO.22 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.23 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.24 A group of Enterprise Vault (EV) users can open archived shortcuts successfully. However, they are
unable to archive new items. Items selected to be stored within the vault quickly change from a pending
shortcut icon to a normal Outlook e-mail icon without an error.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ability to archive within EV has been disabled for these users.
B. The Archive Task that processes that user's Exchange server is stopped.
C. The Vault Store where the user archives are located is in Backup mode.
D. The Storage service on the EV server is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.25 A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a
Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories,
respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item
remains as Personal Expenses.
What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item
moves in to?
A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with
the new retention category.
B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category
updates
C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention
D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move
Answer: B

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NO.26 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers.
How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.27 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault
(EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions?
(Select three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC

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NO.29 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.30 What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029   certification ST0-029   ST0-029 examen   certification ST0-029

NO.2 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

Symantec   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029   ST0-029 examen

NO.6 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.8 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.9 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.10 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

Symantec   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.11 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.12 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

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NO.13 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-029   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.14 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-029   certification ST0-029

NO.15 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.18 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

Symantec examen   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029 examen

NO.20 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

certification Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.21 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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NO.22 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.23 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

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NO.24 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.25 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

certification Symantec   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029

NO.26 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

Symantec examen   ST0-029   ST0-029   certification ST0-029

NO.27 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.28 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.29 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.30 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-025
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.4 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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NO.8 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

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NO.9 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.10 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.16 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

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NO.17 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

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NO.20 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-29B
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.3 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.9 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.11 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.13 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.15 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.20 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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